Begin Immediately why does my lower abdomen hurt after sex high-quality webcast. Without any fees on our streaming service. Engage with in a massive assortment of themed playlists displayed in excellent clarity, designed for top-tier viewing connoisseurs. With the latest videos, you’ll always receive updates with the top and trending media designed for you. See specially selected streaming in amazing clarity for a truly engrossing experience. Register for our media center today to observe special deluxe content with for free, registration not required. Receive consistent updates and browse a massive selection of exclusive user-generated videos produced for first-class media devotees. Make sure to get original media—get it fast freely accessible to all! Maintain interest in with instant entry and dive into high-quality unique media and begin to watch instantly! Treat yourself to the best of why does my lower abdomen hurt after sex special maker videos with amazing visuals and chosen favorites.

Why are there two pronunciations for either Also, if you say today was an usual day, unless your pronunciation is extremely clear, you risk being misunderstood as today was unusual day, which will only confuse your listeners. Ask question asked 15 years ago modified 6 years, 4 months ago

Why is it that in lists of people’s names, surnames beginning with mc are listed before surnames beginning with ma Since usual starts with a 'y' sound, it should take 'a' instead of 'an' For example, if a book had a bibliography listing its references, we would see t.

Why the terminology changed from latin to english is a matter of speculation

In french, avant j.c. (before jesus christ) Why do people use the latter terminology For one thing, i find it confusing It doesn't help that bce is similar to bc

But moreover, there is only one letter of difference between the two terms, whereas with bc and ad, the terms are clearly different and i find it easier to distinguish Were bce/ce established earlier than bc/ad? Why did the english adapt the name pineapple from spanish (which originally meant pinecone in english) while most european countries eventually adapted the name ananas, which came from the tupi word nanas (also meaning pineapple). But in my experience, north americans (canadians too) don't pronounce the middle a

They pronounce it exactly like the girl's name carmel

From my experience, all americans pronounce it without the a and all other places pronounce it with the middle a voiced Can this difference in pronunciation be traced to a root cause? 5 that's a very good question I've used all of the other ones on occasion

But in 52 years, i've used cunt anatomically only a handful of times, and i can't recall ever using it as a slang reference for a woman. I understand that the word spook is a racial slur that rose in usage during wwii I also know germans called black gunners spookwaffe What i don't understand is why

Spook seems to also mean 'ghos.

Women who aren't interested in much more than sex are referred to as slappers in british english British informal, derogatory a promiscuous or vulgar woman I can't find any solid As jimi oke points out, it doesn't matter what letter the word starts with, but what sound it starts with

OPEN